Q- The process of depositing zinc on steel surfaces by diffusion coating is known as :
A. Sherardising
B. Chromising
C. Calorising
D. Galvanising
Answer-A
Q- Sherardising , Chromising and Calorising fall under which of the processes of metal coating application :
A. Thermal spraying
B. Electroplating
C. Diffusion coating
D. Metal cladding
Answer-C
Q- Bronze is an alloy typically consisting of :-
A. Copper , lead & tin
B. Copper , Zinc & lead
C. Copper , Zinc & Tin
D. Copper , Tin & Lead
Answer-D
Q- Which of the foll. is a true statement
A) Aluminium wl b subject to preferential corrosion when in electrical continuity with stainless steel in presence of an electrolyte.
b) Stainless steel wl b subject to preferential corrosion when in electrical continuity with mild steel in presence of an electrolyte.
C) Copper wl b subject to preferential corrosion when in electrical continuity with stainlesssteel in presence of an electrolyte
d) Aluminium wl b subject to preferential corrosion when in electrical continuity with zinc in presence of an electrolyte.
Answer-A
Q- The common term used for failure of metal and alloys in a corrosive environment , when subject to high stresses is known as :
A. Fatigue failure
B. Corrosion fatigue
C. Stress corrosion cracking
D. Fretting corrosion
Answer-C
Q- Which of the following layers of a thin shell bearing gives it its fatigue strength?
A. The overlay
B. The interlay
C. The backing
D. The barrier layer
Answer-A
Q- Before the longitudinal carriage feed of a lathe is engaged, you must be certain the
A. spindle clutch is disengaged
B. carriage clamp screw is loosened
C. carriage stop clamp is tightened
D. thread dial indicator is zeroed
Q- Corrosion protection of steel surfaces by zinc coating can be carried out only at temperatures below 65 Deg. C . For higher temperatures
A. Zinc reacts very fast and thus can only provide protection for a limited time
B. Zinc reacts with steel and protective layer vanishes due to chemical reaction
C. Steel may corrode preferentially to the zinc
D. Dezincification occurs leading to removal of zinc coating
Answer-C
Q- Which of the following is the material used for manufacturing tube plates of a shell and tube type heat exchanger?
A. Cupro-nickel
B. Aluminum Brass
C. Admiralty Brass
D. Gunmetal
Answer-C (Because Naval brass tube plates are used with aluminium bass tubes. Tube stacks are made up to have a fixed tube plate at one end and a tube plate at the other end which is free to move with the expansion of the tubes. Other materials found in service are gunmetal, aluminium bronze and sometimes special alloys.)
Q- Material of turbo chanrger rotor.
A stainless steel
B cast iron
C high alloy nickel chromium
D low alloy nickel chromium
Answer-C
Q- corrosion occurs in cooling fresh water system
A. stress corrosion
B. hot corrosion
C. bi metalic corrosion
D. selective phase corrosion
Answer-Dont Know
Q- Coked material remaining after an oil has been exposed to high temperature, is an indication of the coke forming tendency of the oil. It can be expressed as
A. Conradson
B. Ramsbottom
C. Micro Carbon Residue(MCR)
D. Any of the above
Answer-D
Q- high tensile steels are
a) high carbon steels with suitably added alloying elements
b) medium carbon steels with suitably added alloying elements
c) low carbon steels with suitably added alloying elements
d) none of the above
Q- which of the following instruments set out carrier's obligations and liabilities with respect to carriage of goods?
a) Hague rules
b) Hamburg Rules
c) Hague-Visby Rules
d) All of the above
Answer-D
Q- The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water contamination of hydraulic oil, are generally ____________.
a) removed by cellulose type filters
b) gums, varnishes, and acids
c) always neutralized by oil additives
d) harmless and have no effect on system
Answer-B
Q- Enlarging one tube end so the end of another tube of the same size will fit inside is termed ____________.
a belling
b stretching
c flaring
d swaging
Answer-D
Q- Which of the following types of coatings used in tanks of a chemical carrier provides a comprehensive protection against most solvents?
A. Epoxy coatings
B. Polyurethane coatings
C. Zinc silicate
D. Phenolic resins
Answer-D
Q- Which of the following types of steam traps uses the pressure energy of the steam to close the outlet ?
A.Thermostatic trap
B.Thermodynamic trap
C.Mechanical trap
D.Vacuum trap
Answer-B
Q- Which process is not done on mild steel.
A)hot plating
B)electrolysis
C)explosion bonding
D)metal spraying
Answer-C
Q- Which of the following statements is false about corrosion due to galvanic action?
A. Metals close to the anodic end of galvanic series corrode in preference to the ones close to the cathodic end.
B. When any single metal exists in a system, it cannot corrode due to galvanic action.
C. Zinc is anodic to steel and is often used as a protective coating
D. Corrosion rate is affected by temperature
Answer-B
Q- Dezincification of brasses may be prevented by introducing which of the following additives during manufacturing brass?
A. 0.04% Nickel
B. 0.04% Cobalt
C. 0.04%Arsenic
D. 0.04%Tungsten
Answer-C
Q- enlarging one tube end so the other end of another tube of same size will fit inside is termed as A belling B stretching C flaring D swaging
MARINE BOILER
Q-The most important control measure to prevent boiler tube failure is:
A. Use of proper refractory material
B. Proper maintenance of fuel burning equipment
C. Proper maintenance of boiler water condition
D. All of the above
Answer-D
Q- Water carryover from boiler onboard through the steam causes-
a) Erosion of the steam plant machinery
b) Low water level inside the boiler
c) Build up of deposits on the steam plant machinery
d) None of the above
Answer-A & C
Q-which type of boiler burner have max. turn down ratio?
a. pressure jet
b. spinning cup burner
c. spill type
d. Y-jet type burner
Answer-D(20:1 ratio)
Q- steam stop v\v is eased of its seat during boiler start up from cold
a.To allow thermal exp of parts
b.To allow steam flow during start up
c.To prevent water hammer
d.All of above
Answer-D
Q- boiler water tube crack will lead to
a. increased filter tank level in cascade
b. decreased chloride level in water
c.difficulty in maintain the boiler water level
d.all
Answer-D
Q- Which of the following statements about the design of D- type boilers, is false ?
A. The heavier water in top drum flows back to the bottom drum through the down- comers outside the furnace
B. Inside the furnace the water is heated up in the risers
C. The upper drum is the steam/water drum and the lower one is the water drum.
D. The feed water is pumped into the lower drum
Answer-D
Multiple Choice Question
Q- Which of the following is the function of steam drum in two drum boiler:
1. collect steam
2. equalise water in boiler tubes
3. collect boiler water
4. precipitates salts out of boiler water
Answer-1 & 2
Q- ________ boiler feed pumps is used in modern ships
A.Reciprocating pump
B.Heleshaw pump
C.Multistage centrifugal pump
D.Single stage centrifugal pump
Answer-C
Q- In a D- type water tube boiler with a secondary steam drum and super- heater, the steam is heated above the boiling point of water in the __________________
A.Primary steam drum
B.Risers
C.Super- heater
D.Secondary steam drum
Answer-C
Q- Which of the following used in boiler treatment is an oxygen scavenging
a. Polymer
b. Neutralizing amine
c. Sodium sulphite
d. Filming amine
Answer-C
Q- How is the concentration of dissolved oxygen in the feedwater of an auxiliary boiler maintained at acceptable limits?
A. Feedwater is cycled through a DC heater.
B. Feedwater is treated with phosphates
C. Oxygen is liberated in the three-stages of feedwater preheating.
D. Oxygen is liberated by maintaining the highest practical feedwater temperature
Answer-D
Q- The boiler water alkalinity in a coil-type auxiliary boiler should be maintained at the pH recommended by the boiler manufacturer to
A.precipitate silica from solution
B.reduce corrosion in the heating coil
C.prevent clogging and erosion in the coil
D.maintain zero water hardness
Answer-B
Q- Boiler water level control, controlling swell and shrink of boiler with
A. feed water level
B. steam drum
C. water drum
D. none of the above
Answer-A
Multiple Choice Question
Q- A diffuser is provided at the end of a mechanical atomizer in boiler onboard
A. To prevent blow back of the flame
B. To mix the air and fuel properly
C. To prevent blow out of the flame
D. To eject the excess fumes from the atomizer
Answer-A and B
Q- How is the water circulated between water and steam drums in a water tube D- type boiler?
A. By the boiler feed water pump
B. By a circulating pump outside the boiler
C. Due to difference in densities of water and steam
D. None of the above
Answer-C
Multiple Choice Question
Q- Steam drum is used for
A. collecting of steam
B. collecting of water
C. equalising water in the tubes
D. collecting of precipitated salts of water
Answer-A and B
Q- Boiler secondary drum pressure ............than primary drum pressure
A. Less
B. More than
C. Equal
Answer-A
Multiple Choice Question
Q- An economizer uptake fire in the engine room is extinguished by
A. Boundary cooling of the uptake
B. Injecting fixed fire fighting system if provided
C. Injecting water from the uptake
D. None of the above
Answer-A and B
Q- when oil fired boiler running which of these can be done
a. gauge glass blowdown
b.removal of flame eye
c. some maint with pilot burner
d.removal of safety vv
Answer-A
SHIP CONSTRUCTION
Q- Owing to the greater girth of a ship amidships than at the ends, certain strakes are dropped as they approach the bow and stern to reduce the amount of plating at the ends. These strakes are called __________.
A) drop strakes
B) stealers
C) throughs
D) voids
Answer-B
Q- A chock __________.
A) is a deck fitting used to shackle gear to the deck
B) permits easy jettisoning of deck cargo in an emergency
C) prevents stress concentration in the bulwark
D) provides openings through the bulwark for mooring lines
Answer-D
Q- One function of a bulwark is to __________.
A) help keep the deck dry
B) prevent stress concentrations on the stringer plate
C) protect against twisting forces exerted on the frame of the vessel
D) reinforce the side stringers
Answer-A
Q- Freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks __________.
A) prevent stress concentration in the bulwark
B) permit easy jettison of deck cargo in an emergency
C) provide openings through the bulwarks for mooring lines
D) allow water shipped on deck to flow off rapidly
Answer-D
Q-The vessel's "quarter" is located __________.
A) abeam
B) dead astern
C) just forward of the beam on either side
D) on either side of the stern
Answer-D
Q- The horizontal flat surfaces where the upper stock joins the rudder are the __________.
A) rudder keys
B) rudder palms
C) lifting flanges
D) shoes of the rudder
Answer-B
Q- A "contra-guide" is a type of __________.
A) bow thruster
B) cargo gear
C) steering engine
D) rudder
Q- A Kort nozzle is a(n) __________.
A) hollow tube surrounding the propeller used to improve thrust
B) nozzle attached to a firefighting hose
C) intake valve on a diesel engine
D) piston cylinder on a diesel engine
Answer-A
Q- The actuator of ballast valve in duct keel in port to carry deballast open best practice
a.Interchange from another valve.
b.Manually operated
c.Leave the tank full and ask for shore assistance.
d.Portable pump through manhole.
Answer-B
Q- A cofferdam is __________.
A) any deck below the main deck and above the lowest deck
B) a member that gives fore-and-aft strength
C) made by placing two bulkheads a few feet apart
D) a heavy fore-and-aft beam under the deck
Answer-C
Q- Another name for the garboard strake is the __________.
A) A strake
B) Z strake
C) side keel plate
D) stringer plate
Answer-A
Q-Which of the following statements are true as far as painting of steel hull/structure is concerned? Multiple choice
A. Painting can be done under any weather condition
B. Painting can only be done after proper surface preparation is carried out
C. Painting should only be done on top of appropriate primer coating
D. Several coats of paint can be applied one after the other without any time gap
Answer-B and C
Q- Better freeing arrangements on tanker decks inform of open rails for 50% of length are provided:
A. To ensure no seawater gets into the tanks.
B. Because tankers have less freeboard.
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Answer-B
Q- what is the purpose of cant frames in steel vessels? uscg
A) To support the overhang of the stern
B) To provide strength to shell plating at the stern Ship construction
C) To add strength to the deck beams which support the weather decks
D) To support the plating of a cylindrical tank
Answer-B
1) The usual depth of a beam bracket is __________.
A) 2 1/2 times the depth of the beam
B) 5 times the depth of the beam
C) 10 times the depth of the beam
D) same depth as the beam
Answer-A
2) A deck beam does NOT __________.
A) act as a beam to support vertical deck loads
B) lessen the longitudinal stiffness of the vessel
C) act as a tie to keep the sides of the ship in place
D) act as a web to prevent plate wrinkling due to twisting action on the vessel
Answer-A
3) The deck beam brackets of a transversely framed vessel resist __________.
A) hogging stresses
B) sagging stresses
C) racking stresses
D) shearing stresses
Answer-C
4) Beams are cambered to __________.
A) increase their strength
B) provide drainage from the decks
C) relieve deck stress
D) All of the above
Answer-B
5) Which term refers to a transverse curvature of the deck?
A) Deadrise
B) Camber
C) Freeboard
D) Flare
Answer-B
6) A carling is used aboard ship __________.
A) as a connecting strap between the butted ends of plating
B) to stiffen areas under points of great stress between beams
C) to prevent the anchor from fouling when the brake is released
D) to provide an extra heavy fitting in a heavy lift cargo rig
Answer-B
7) The pillar shape that gives the greatest strength for the least weight is the __________.
A) octagonal pillar
B) "H" Beam pillar
C) "I" Beam pillar
D) circular type pillar
Answer-D
8) On a small passenger vessel the collision bulkhead is __________.
A) amidships forward of the engine room
B) just forward of the steering compartment
C) in the engine room
D) A distance of 5% to 15% of the waterline length abaft the stem measured at the load waterline
Answer-D
9) The fore and aft run of deck plating which strengthens the connection between the beams and the frames and keeps the beams square to the shell is called the __________.
A) garboard strake
B) limber strake
C) sheer strake
D) stringer strake
Answer-D
10) Camber, in a ship, is usually measured in __________.
A) feet per feet of breadth
B) feet per feet of length
C) inches per feet of breadth
D) inches per feet of length
Answer-C
11) A partial deck in a hold is called a(n) __________.
A) weather deck
B) orlop deck
C) shelter deck
D) main deck
Answer-B
12) The floors in a vessel's hull structure are kept from tripping, or folding over, by __________.
A) face plates
B) bottom longitudinals
C) longitudinal deck beams
D) transverse deck beams
Answer-B
13) floors aboard ship are __________.
A) frames to which the tank top and bottom shell are fastened on a double bottomed ship
B) transverse members of the ships frame which support the decks
C) longitudinal beams in the extreme bottom of a ship from which the ship's ribs start
D) longitudinal angle bars fastened to a surface for strength
Answer-A
14) Aboard ship, vertical flat plates running transversely and connecting the vertical keel to the margin plates are called __________.
A) floors
B) intercostals
C) girders
D) stringers
Answer-A
15) Frames to which the tank top and bottom shell are fastened are called __________.
A) floors
B) intercostals
C) stringers
D) tank top supports
Answer-A
16) Floors aboard ship are __________.
A) also called decks
B) vertical transverse plates connecting the vertical keel with the margin plates
C) large beams fitted in various parts of the vessel for additional strength
D) found in passenger and berthing spaces only
Answer-B
17) Vertical structural members attached to the floors that add strength to the floors are called __________.
A) boss plates
B) buckler plates
C) stiffeners
D) breast hooks
Answer-C
18) The terms "ceiling" and "margin plate" are associated with the __________.
A) crew's quarters
B) engine room
C) main deck
D) tank top
Answer-D
19) A term applied to the bottom shell plating in a double-bottom ship is __________.
A) bottom floor
B) outer bottom
C) shear plating
D) tank top
Answer-B
20) Which is an advantage of using watertight longitudinal divisions in double bottom tanks?
A) Cuts down free surface effect
B) Increases the rolling period
C) Decreases weight because extra stiffeners are unneeded
D) Lowers the center of buoyancy without decreasing GM
Answer-A
21) What is used to prevent accidental flooding of a double bottom or peak tanks in the event of a pipe rupture due to collision?
A) Separate lines are provided for filling and pumping these tanks.
B) Pipe lines must run vertically from the tank to a point above the margin line before turning fore or aft towards the pump.
C) All tanks must be served by the fewest possible number of pipes to reduce the possibility of rupture.
D) Suction lines are fitted with a non-return valve
Answer-D
22) In a transversely framed ship, the transverse frames are supported by all of the following EXCEPT __________.
A) girders
B) longitudinals
C) side stringers
D) web plates
Answer-D
23) In a longitudinally-framed ship, the longitudinal frames are held in place and supported by athwartship members called __________.
A) floors
B) margin plates
C) stringers
D) web frames
Answer-D
24) When the longitudinal strength members of a vessel are continuous and closely spaced, the vessel is __________.
A) transversely framed
B) longitudinally framed
C) intermittently framed
D) web framed
Answer-B
25) A vessel having continuous closely spaced transverse strength members is __________.
A) longitudinally framed
B) transversely framed
C) cellular framed
D) web framed
Answer-B
26) In ship construction, frame spacing is __________.
A) greater at the bow and stern
B) reduced at the bow and stern
C) uniform over the length of the vessel
D) uniform over the length of the vessel, with the exception of the machinery spaces, where it is reduced due to increased stresses
Answer-B
27) Why are most break bulk vessels built with the transverse framing system rather than the longitudinal system?
A) The transverse system is more resistant to hog and sag stresses.
B) The numerous longitudinal frames cause excessive broken stowage.
C) The transverse system provides better support to the varying cargo densities on a break bulk vessel.
D) The deep web frames interfere with the stowage of break bulk cargo
Answer-D
28) Transverse frames are more widely spaced on a ship that is designed with the __________.
A) centerline system of framing
B) isometric system of framing
C) longitudinal system of framing
D) transverse system of framing
Answer-C
29) What is the purpose of cant frames in steel vessels?
A) To support the overhang of the stern
B) To provide strength to shell plating at the stern
C) To add strength to the deck beams which support the weather decks
D) To support the plating of a cylindrical tank
Answer-B
30) Reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead on a vessel are called __________.
A) side longitudinals
B) intercostals
C) stiffeners
D) brackets
Answer-C
31) Lighter longitudinal stiffening frames on the vessel's side plating are called __________.
A) stringers
B) side frames
C) side stiffeners
D) intercostals
Answer-A
32) In ship construction, keel scantlings should be the greatest __________.
A) at each frame
B) amidships
C) one-third the distance from the bow
D) one-third the distance from the stern
Answer-B
33)Keel scantlings of any vessel are greatest amidships because __________.
A) connections between forebody and afterbody are most crucial
B) of maximum longitudinal bending moments
C) of severest racking stresses
D) resistance to grounding is at a maximum amidships
Answer-B
34)A thirty pound plate would be __________.
A) 3/8" thick
B) 1/2" thick
C) 3/4" thick
D) 1" thick
Answer-C
35)The ceiling is __________.
A) the overhead in berthing compartments
B) a wooden protection placed over the tank top
C) material driven into seams or cracks to prevent leaking
D) None of the above are correct
Answer-B
36)The wooden planking that protects the tank top from cargo loading is called __________.
A) ceiling
B) shores
C) frames
D) toms
Answer-A
37)A set of interior steps on a ship leading up to a deck from below is know as _________.
A) a companion way
B) tween-decks
C) stairs
D) All of the above are acceptable
Answer-A
38)A cofferdam is __________.
A) any deck below the main deck and above the lowest deck
B) a member that gives fore-and-aft strength
C) made by placing two bulkheads a few feet apart
D) a heavy fore-and-aft beam under the deck
Answer-C
39)The thickness of a 30.6 pound plate is __________.
A) 3/8"
B) 1/2"
C) 3/4"
D) 1"
Answer-C
40)The fittings used to secure a watertight door are known as __________.
A) clamps
B) clasps
C) dogs
D) latches
Answer-C
41)in nautical terminology a "dog" is a __________.
A) crow bar
B) device to force a water tight door against the frame
C) heavy steel beam
D) wedge
Answer-B
42)When using the term "limber system" one is referring to a __________.
A) cleaning system
B) drainage system
C) strengthening system
D) weight reduction system
Answer-B
43)"Limber" is a term associated with __________.
A) emergency gear
B) drainage
C) deck cargo storage
D) securing gear
Answer-B
44)the perforated, elevated bottom of the chain locker, which prevents the chains from touching the main locker bottom and allows seepage water to flow to the drains, is called a __________
A) cradle
B) draft
C) harping
D) manger
Answer-D
45)The "margin plate" is the __________.
A) outboard strake of plating on each side of an inner bottom
B) outer strake of plating on each side of the main deck of a vessel
C) plate which sits atop the center vertical keel
D) uppermost continuous strake of plating on the shell of a vessel
Answer-
44)What is NOT an advantage of double bottom ships?
A) The tank top forms a second skin for the vessel.
B) The center of gravity of a loaded bulk cargo ship may be raised to produce a more comfortable roll.
C) The floors and longitudinals distribute the upward push of the water on the ship's bottom.
D) They are less expensive to construct because of increased access space.
Answer-D
47)Which statement is TRUE concerning protection of double bottom tanks against excessive pressure?
A) Each vent for the tank must be equal to the area of the tank filling line.
B) The tanks must be protected by overflows.
C) The total area of the vents or the overflow shall be at least 125% of the area of the fill line.
D) There must be twice as much vent area as the area of the fill line.
Answer-C
48)Which statement concerning solid floors is TRUE?
A) They must be watertight.
B) They may have lightening, limber, or air holes cut into them.
C) They are built of structural frames connected by angle struts and stiffeners, with flanged plate brackets at each end.
D) They are lighter than open floors.
Answer-B
49)The "inner bottom" is the __________.
A) tank top
B) compartment between the tank top and shell of the vessel
C) inner side of the vessel's shell
D) space between two transverse bottom frames
Answer-A
50)The garboard strake is the __________.
A) raised flange at the main deck edge
B) riveted crack arrester strap on all-welded ships
C) riveting pattern most commonly used in ship construction
D) row of plating nearest the keel
Answer-D
51)The strake on each side of the keel is called a __________.
A) sheer strake
B) gatewood strake
C) insulation strake
D) garboard strake
Answer-D
52)In vessel construction, the garboard strake is __________.
A) located next to and parallel to the keel
B) located next to and parallel to the gunwale
C) another term for the bilge keel
D) another term for the rub rail
Answer-A
53)Another name for the garboard strake is the __________.
A) A strake
B) Z strake
C) side keel plate
D) stringer plate
Answer-A
54)The term "strake" is used in reference to __________.
A) rudder mountings
B) anchor gear
C) hull plating
D) vessel framing
Answer-C
55)The joint formed when two steel shell plates are placed longitudinally side to side is called a __________.
A) bevel
B) bond
C) strake
D) seam
Answer-D
56)The joint formed when two steel plates are placed end-to-end is called a __________.
61)Which is NOT an advantage of the flush method of welded shell plating?
A) bevel
B) seam
C) butt
D) bond
Answer-C
57)Owing to the greater girth of a ship amidships than at the ends, certain strakes are dropped as they approach the bow and stern to reduce the amount of plating at the ends. These strakes are called __________.
A) drop strakes
B) stealers
C) throughs
D) voids
Answer-A
58)To reduce the number of strakes at the bow, two strakes are tapered and joined at their ends by a single plate. This plate is known as a __________.
A) cover plate
B) joiner
C) lap strake
D) stealer plate
Answer-D
59)Which arrangement of shell plating is used most in modern shipbuilding?
A) Clinker
B) Flush
C) In-and-Out
D) Joggled
Answer-B
60)What is NOT an advantage of ship construction methods using welded butt joints in the shell plating?
A) Keeps practically 100% of tensile strength at the joints
B) Reduces frictional resistance
C) Reduces plate stress
D) Reduces weight
Answer-C
61)Which is NOT an advantage of the flush method of welded shell plating?
A) Reduces weight
B) Reduces frictional resistance
C) Keeps practically 100% of tensile strength at the joints
D) Reduces plate stress
Answer-D
62)Shell plating that has curvature in two directions and must be heated and hammered to shape over specially prepared forms is called __________.
A) compound plate
B) furnaced plate
C) flat plate
D) rolled plate
Answer-B
63)Shell plating is __________.
A) the galvanizing on steel
B) a hatch cover
C) the outer plating of a vessel
D) synonymous with decking
Answer-C
64)bilge keels are fitted on ships to __________.
A) assist in dry dock alignment
B) improve the vessel's stability
C) protect the vessel from slamming against piers
D) reduce the rolling of the vessel
Answer-D
65)The function of the bilge keel is to __________.
A) reduce the rolling of the vessel
B) serve as the vessel's main strength member
C) add strength to the bilge
D) protect the vessel's hull when alongside a dock
Answer-A
66)Bilge keels are more effective at dampening rolls as the __________.
A) pitching increases
B) list increases
C) rolling increases
D) draft decreases
Answer-C
67)Which statement about bilge keels is CORRECT?
A) They are critical strength members and require careful design consideration.
B) They increase resistance to rolling.
C) They attach to a low stress area.
D) They provide support when the vessel is dry docked.
Answer-B
68)The strength of a deck will be increased by adding __________.
A) camber
B) deck beam brackets
C) hatch beams
D) sheer
Answer-B
69)To rigidly fasten together the peak frames, the stem, and the outside framing, a horizontal plate is fitted across the forepeak of a vessel. This plate is known as a(n) __________.
A) apron plate
B) breasthook
C) intercostal plate
D) joiner
Answer-B
70)Panting frames are located in the __________.
A) after double bottoms
B) centerline tanks on tankships
C) fore and after peaks
D) forward double bottoms
Answer-C
71)The extension of the after part of the keel in a single- screw vessel upon which the stern post rests is called the __________.
A) boss
B) knuckle
C) skeg
D) strut
Answer-C
72)On a single-screw vessel the stern frame _________.
A) furnishes support to the rudder, propeller shaft, and transom frame
B) provides foundations for after mooring winches
C) provides foundations for the main propulsion engines
D) transfers the driving force of the propeller to the hull
Answer-A
73)The ratio of the height of a vessel's rudder to its width is referred to as the __________.
A) aspect ratio
B) constriction ratio
C) rudder ratio
D) steering ratio
Answer-A
74)The term "pintle" and "gudgeon" are associated with the __________.
A) anchor windlass
B) jumbo boom
C) rudder
D) steering engine
Answer-C
75)The projecting lugs of the rudderpost which furnish support to the rudder are called __________.
A) bases
B) gudgeons
C) pintles
D) rudder lugs
Answer-B
76)The terms "cant frame" and "counter" are associated with the vessel's __________.
A) cargo hatch
B) forecastle
C) steering engine
D) stern
Answer-D
77)The pitch of a propeller is a measure of the __________.
A) angle that the propeller makes with a free stream of water
B) angle that the propeller makes with the surface of the water
C) number of feet per revolution the propeller is designed to advance in still water without slip
D) positive pressure resulting from the difference of the forces on both sides of the moving propeller in still water without slip
Answer-C
78)A Kort nozzle is a(n) __________.
A) hollow tube surrounding the propeller used to improve thrust
B) nozzle attached to a firefighting hose
C) intake valve on a diesel engine
D) piston cylinder on a diesel engine
Answer-A
79)A "contra-guide" is a type of __________.
A) bow thruster
B) cargo gear
C) steering engine
D) rudder
Answer-D
80)The horizontal flat surfaces where the upper stock joins the rudder are the __________.
A) rudder keys
B) rudder palms
C) lifting flanges
D) shoes of the rudder
Answer-B
81)The vessel's "quarter" is located __________.
A) abeam
B) dead astern
C) just forward of the beam on either side
D) on either side of the stern
Answer-D
82)A chock __________.
A) is a deck fitting used to shackle gear to the deck
B) permits easy jettisoning of deck cargo in an emergency
C) prevents stress concentration in the bulwark
D) provides openings through the bulwark for mooring lines
Answer-D
83)What is the purpose of the freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks?
A) Allow water which may be shipped on deck to flow off rapidly
B) Permit easy jettisoning of deck cargo in an emergency
C) Prevent the formation of any unusual stress concentration points
D) Lighten the above deck weight caused by a solid bulwark
Answer-A
84)Freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks __________.
A) prevent stress concentration in the bulwark
B) permit easy jettison of deck cargo in an emergency
C) provide openings through the bulwarks for mooring lines
D) allow water shipped on deck to flow off rapidly
Answer-D
85)One function of a bulwark is to __________.
A) help keep the deck dry
B) prevent stress concentrations on the stringer plate
C) protect against twisting forces exerted on the frame of the vessel
D) reinforce the side stringers
Answer-A
86)A deck fitting, used to secure line or wire rope, consisting of a single body with two protruding horns is called a __________.
A) bitt
B) bollard
C) capstan
D) cleat
Answer-D
87)A vessel is constructed with a steel hull and an aluminum superstructure. Which statement is TRUE?
A) The aluminum will provide greater resistance to the spread of fire by conduction.
B) The aluminum structure is usually attached to a steel coaming by a method that insulates the two metals.
C) If the superstructure is stressed, an aluminum structure requires additional expansion joints to prevent fracture.
D) The steel at the area of the aluminum-to-steel connection must be closely checked for galvanic corrosion.
Answer-B
88)Sometimes it is desirable to connect a member both by riveting and welding. Which statement is TRUE concerning this procedure?
A) Tearing through the member is more likely in this type connection.
B) The weld may be broken by the stresses caused by riveting.
C) The weld increases the tensile stress on the rivet heads.
D) The welding must be completed before the riveting commences.
Answer-D
89)A welded joint's effectiveness is considered __________.
A) 48%
B) 90%
C) 100%
D) 121%
Answer-C
90)What welding pattern is NOT used to permanently attach a stiffener to a plate?
A) Chain intermittent
B) Tack
C) Continuous
D) Staggered intermittent
Answer-B
91)The welds used to attach stiffeners to a plate are known as __________.
A) butt welds
B) seam welds
C) fillet welds
D) plate welds
Answer-C
92)The welds used to join shell plates in flush construction are known as __________.
A) butt welds
B) seam welds
C) fillet welds
D) continuous welds
Answer-A
85)One function of a bulwark is to __________.
A) help keep the deck dry
B) prevent stress concentrations on the stringer plate
C) protect against twisting forces exerted on the frame of the vessel
D) reinforce the side stringers
Answer-A
86)A deck fitting, used to secure line or wire rope, consisting of a single body with two protruding horns is called a __________.
A) bitt
B) bollard
C) capstan
D) cleat
Answer-D
87)A vessel is constructed with a steel hull and an aluminum superstructure. Which statement is TRUE?
A) The aluminum will provide greater resistance to the spread of fire by conduction.
B) The aluminum structure is usually attached to a steel coaming by a method that insulates the two metals.
C) If the superstructure is stressed, an aluminum structure requires additional expansion joints to prevent fracture.
D) The steel at the area of the aluminum-to-steel connection must be closely checked for galvanic corrosion.
Answer-B
88)Sometimes it is desirable to connect a member both by riveting and welding. Which statement is TRUE concerning this procedure?
A) Tearing through the member is more likely in this type connection.
B) The weld may be broken by the stresses caused by riveting.
C) The weld increases the tensile stress on the rivet heads.
D) The welding must be completed before the riveting commences.
Answer-D
89)A welded joint's effectiveness is considered __________.
A) 48%
B) 90%
C) 100%
D) 121%
Answer-C
90)What welding pattern is NOT used to permanently attach a stiffener to a plate?
A) Chain intermittent
B) Tack
C) Continuous
D) Staggered intermittent
Answer-B
91)The welds used to attach stiffeners to a plate are known as __________.
A) butt welds
B) seam welds
C) fillet welds
D) plate welds
Answer-C
92)The welds used to join shell plates in flush construction are known as __________.
A) butt welds
B) seam welds
C) fillet welds
D) continuous welds
Answer-A
93)The smallest size of flaw that can be detected on a radiograph examination of a weld will be indicated by the __________.
A) film speed
B) penetrometer
C) exposure reading
D) time of exposure
Answer-B
94)Which type of weld testing can be used to detect internal flaws?
A) Radiographic
B) Magnetic particle
C) Dye penetrant
D) Chemical reaction
Answer-A
95)Which type of weld testing can be used to detect internal flaws?
A) Magnetic particle
B) Dye penetrant
C) Ultrasonic
D) Chemical reaction
Answer-C
96)Which weld fault can only be detected by a method that examines the internal structure of a weld?
A) Undercut
B) Lack of reinforcement
C) Overlap
D) Lack of penetration
Answer-D
97)Ultrasonic testing is used to determine the thickness of a vessel's shell plating and to __________.
A) provide tail shaft clearances
B) test welds for subsurface defects
C) check the wear of the rudder carrier bearing
D) test the links of the anchor cables while being ranged
Answer-B
98)The type of welding employed in shipyards is primarily __________.
A) brazing
B) electric arc
C) pressure welding
D) thermite welding
Answer-B
99)A wind has caused a difference between drafts starboard and port. This difference is __________.
A) list
B) heel
C) trim
D) flotation
Answer-B
100)The difference between the initial trim and the trim after loading is known as __________.
A) trim
B) change of trim
C) final trim
D) change of draft
Answer-B
101)The difference between the starboard and port drafts due to wind or seas is called __________.
A) list
B) heel
C) trim
D) flotation
Answer-B
102)Forces within a vessel have caused a difference between the starboard and port drafts. This difference is called __________.
A) list
B) heel
C) trim
D) flotation
Answer-A
103)The maximum mean draft to which a vessel may be safely loaded is called __________.
A) mean draft
B) calculated draft
C) deep draft
D) load line draft
Answer-D
104)That center around which a vessel trims is called the __________.
A) tipping center
B) center of buoyancy
C) center of gravity
D) turning center
Answer-A
105)The distance between the bottom of the hull and the waterline is called __________.
A) tonnage
B) reserve buoyancy
C) draft
D) freeboard
Answer-C
106)For an upright vessel, draft is the vertical distance between the keel and the __________.
A) waterline
B) freeboard deck
C) Plimsoll mark
D) amidships section
Answer-A
107)After transferring a weight forward on a vessel, the draft at the center of flotation will __________.
A) change, depending on the location of the LCG
B) increase
C) decrease
D) remain constant
Answer-D
108)The average of the forward and after drafts is the __________.
A) mean draft
B) true mean draft
C) mean of the calculated drafts
D) draft at the center of flotation
Answer-A
109)In order to calculate the TPI of a vessel, for any given draft, it is necessary to divide the area of the waterplane by __________.
A) 35.0
B) 120.0
C) 240.0
D) 420.0
Answer-D
110)As the displacement of a vessel increases, the detrimental effect of free surface __________.
A) increases
B) decreases
C) remains the same
D) may increase or decrease depending on the fineness of the vessel's form
Answer-B
111)When displacement increases, the free surface corrections for slack tanks __________.
A) increase
B) decrease
C) are directly proportional
D) remain unchanged
Answer-B
112) When displacement increases, the free surface moments of slack tanks __________.
A) increase
B) decrease
C) are inversely proportional
D) remain unchanged
Answer-D
113)A tank 36 ft. by 36 ft. by 6 ft. is filled with water to a depth of 5 ft. If a bulkhead is placed in the center of the tank running fore-and-aft along the 36-foot axis, how will the value of the moment of inertia of the free surface be affected?
A) The moment of inertia would remain unchanged.
B) The moment of inertia would be 1/4 its original value.
C) The moment of inertia would be 1/2 the original value.
D) None of the above
Answer-B
114)Many vessels are provided with flume tanks, which also have a dump tank located under the flume tanks. In the event the ship is damaged, you could dump the flume tanks into the dump tank which would __________.
A) reduce the free surface effect and raise the KG
B) not have any effect on free surface and raise the KG
C) reduce the free surface effect and lower the KG
D) not have any effect on free surface and lower the KG
Answer-C
115)Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?
A) It is added to the uncorrected GM to arrive at the corrected available GM.
B) It is obtained by dividing the free surface moments by 12 times the volume of displacement.
C) It is obtained by dividing the total free surface by the total vertical moments.
D) It is subtracted from the total longitudinal moments before dividing by displacement to find LCG.
Answer-B
116)Reducing free surfaces has the effect of lowering the __________.
A) uncorrected KG
B) virtual height of the center of gravity
C) metacenter
D) metacentric height
Answer-B
117)Increasing free surfaces has the effect of raising the __________.
A) uncorrected KG
B) virtual height of the center of gravity
C) metacenter
D) metacentric height
Answer-B
118)Subtracting FSCT from KGT yields __________.
A) BL
B) GMT
C) FSCT
D) KG
Answer-D
119)Adding the FSCL to KG yields __________.
A) KM
B) GM
C) KGT
D) KGL
Answer-D
120)The effects of free surface on initial stability depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.
A) volume of liquid in the tank
B) volume of displacement of the vessel
C) location of the tank in the vessel
D) height of the center of gravity of the vessel
Answer-
121)The effects of free surface on initial stability depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.
A) volume of liquid in the tank
B) volume of displacement of the vessel
C) location of the tank in the vessel
D) height of the center of gravity of the vessel
Answer-B
122)The free surface effects of a partially full liquid tank decrease with increased __________.
A) density of the liquid
B) placement of the tank above the keel
C) displacement volume of the vessel
D) size of the surface area in the tank
Answer-C
123)The free surface correction depends upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquid and the __________.
A) volume of liquid in the tank
B) displacement of the vessel
C) location of the tank in the vessel
D) height of the center of gravity of the vessel
Answer-B
124)The free surface effects of a partially full tank in a vessel increase with the __________.
A) surface area of the fluid in the tank
B) displacement volume of the vessel
C) draft of the vessel
D) height of the tank above the keel
Answer-A
125)The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result of liquids __________.
A) flowing from side to side within the vessel
B) flowing from fore to aft within a vessel
C) flowing in and out of a holed wing tank
D) pocketing in a slack tank as a vessel heels
Answer-C
126)The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids flowing __________.
A) from side to side in the tanks of the vessel
B) from fore to aft in the tanks of a vessel
C) in and out of a vessel that is holed in a wing tank
D) in and out of a vessel that is holed in a peak tank
Answer-C
127)Free communication effect is in direct proportion to __________.
A) length and width of space
B) length of space only
C) width of space only
D) neither length nor width
Answer-A
128)Free communication will adversely affect transverse stability only when the flooded space is __________.
A) off-center
B) on the centerline
C) completely flooded
D) open to the sea above and below the waterline
Answer-A
129)What is the principal danger from the liquid in a half full tank onboard a vessel?
A) Corrosion from the shifting liquid
B) Rupturing of bulkheads from the shifting liquid
C) Loss of stability from free surface effect
D) Holing of the tank bottom from the weight of the shifting liquid
Answer-C
130)You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel. Which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel?
A) Shutting off electricity to damaged cables
B) Draining fire-fighting water and pumping it overboard
C) Maneuvering the vessel so the fire is on the lee side
D) RemoIncreasing the number of slack liquid tanks has the effect of raising the __________.
Answer-B
131)To calculate the free surface correction, it is necessary to divide the free-surface moments by the __________.
A) total weight of liquid loads
B) total displacement
C) lightweight
D) deadweight
Answer-B
132)The correction to KG for transverse free surface effects may be found by dividing the vessel's displacement into the __________.
A) transverse free surface correction for the vessel
B) sum of the vertical moments of the vessel
C) sum of the transverse free surface moments of the vessel
D) transverse baseline of the vessel
Answer-C
133)The correction to KG for longitudinal free surface effects for a vessel can be found by dividing the vessel's displacement into the __________.
A) transverse free surface correction for the vessel
B) sum of the vertical moments of the vessel
C) sum of the longitudinal free surface moments of the vessel
D) longitudinal centerline of the vessel
Answer-C
134)Reducing the liquid free surfaces in a vessel reduces the __________.
A) roll period
B) metacentric height
C) waterplane area
D) vessel's draft
Answer-A
135)A tank which is NOT completely full or empty is called __________.
A) pressed
B) slack
C) inertial
D) elemental
Answer-B
136)A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a vessel when it is __________.
A) low in the vessel
B) completely empty
C) completely full
D) slack
Answer-D
137)To prevent loss of stability from free communication flooding you should __________.
A) close the cross-connection valve between the off-center tanks
B) completely flood high center tanks
C) ballast double bottom wing tanks
D) close any opening to the sea in an off-center tank
Answer-D
138)The effect of free surface on initial stability depends upon __________.
A) the amount of liquid in the compartment
B) the dimensions of the liquid surface and the vessel's displacement
C) only the length of the compartment
D) the vertical position of the liquid in the vessel
Answer-B
139)The effects of free surface on a vessel's initial stability do NOT depend upon the __________.
A) volume of displacement of the vessel
B) dimensions of the surface of the liquid
C) amount of liquid in slack tanks
D) specific gravity of the liquid in the tank
Answer-C
140)The most important figure in calculating the free surface constant of a tank carrying liquids is __________.
A) depth
B) length
C) displacement
D) breadth
Answer-D
141)What does NOT affect the value of the free surface correction?
A) Width of the tank
B) Length of the tank
C) Registered tonnage
D) Specific gravity of the liquid in the tank
Answer-C
142)Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the free surface correction?
A) The width of the tank
B) The length of the tank
C) The draft of the vessel
D) The specific gravity of the liquid in the tank
Answer-A
143)Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?
A) It increases in direct proportion to the length of the tank times the breadth squared.
B) It decreases at increased angles of heel due to pocketing when a tank is 90% full.
C) It decreases in direct proportion to increasing specific gravity of the liquid in the tank.
D) In practice, the correction is considered to be a virtual reduction of KG.
Answer-B
144)Which statement about free surface is TRUE?
A) A partially filled space with 40% surface permeability will have greater free surface effect than one with 60% surface permeability.
B) Pocketing increases the loss of GM due to free surface effect.
C) Cargo with a specific gravity of 1.05 has less free surface effect than a cargo with a specific gravity of 0.98.
D) Pocketing occurs at small angles of inclination when a tank is 98% full.
Answer-D
145)which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?
A) It is added to GM at light drafts and subtracted at deep drafts.
B) It is increased if the slack tank is not on the centerline.
C) It is decreased if the slack tank is below the KG of the vessel.
D) The correction decreases as the draft increases due to loading dry cargo.
Answer-D
146)Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?
A) It has the same affect on initial stability whether the tank is 75% full or 25% full.
B) The free surface effect usually increases at angles of heel above 25°.
C) The effect increases if the tank is off the centerline.
D) The effect can be reduced by shifting weights vertically.
Answer-A
147)Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?
A) It is added to GM at light drafts and subtracted at deep drafts.
B) It is increased if the slack tank is not on the centerline.
C) It is decreased if the slack tank is below the KG of the vessel.
D) The correction decreases as the draft increases
Answer-D
148)A vessel is equipped with cross-connected deep tanks. In which situation should the cross-connection valve be closed?
A) The tanks lie above the waterline and are filled.
B) The tanks are partially filled with dry cargo.
C) The tanks are partially filled with liquid cargo.
D) The tanks are filled and lie below the waterline.
Answer-C
149)What is the definition of transverse metacenter?
A) The distance between the actual center of gravity and the maximum center of gravity that will still allow a positive stability.
B) The point to which G may rise and still permit the vessel to possess positive stability.
C) The sum of the center of buoyancy and the center of gravity.
D) The transverse shift of the center of buoyancy as a vessel rolls.
Answer-B
150)The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G) may rise and still permit the vessel to have positive stability is called the __________.
A) metacentric point
B) metacenter
C) metacentric radius
D) tipping center
Answer-B
151)If the vertical center of gravity (VCG) of a ship rises, the righting arm (GZ) for the various angles of inclination will __________.
A) decrease
B) increase
C) remain unchanged
D) be changed by the amount of GG' x cosine of the angle
Answer-A
152)Transverse stability calculations require the use of __________.
A) hog or sag calculations or tables
B) hydrostatic curves
C) general arrangement plans
D) cross-sectional views of the vessel
Answer-B
153)A vessel's KG is determined by __________.
A) dividing the total longitudinal moment summation by displacement
B) dividing the total vertical moment summation by displacement
C) multiplying the MT1 by the longitudinal moments
D) subtracting LCF from LCB
Answer-B
154)What is not usually a concern when loading a single-hulled tanker?
A) Bending moments
B) Initial stability
C) Draft
D) Trim
Answer-B
155)our vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. This indicates that the vessel __________.
A) has off-center weights
B) is taking on water
C) has a greater draft forward than aft
D) has poor stability
Answer-D
156)Which will improve stability?
A) Closing watertight doors
B) Pumping the bilges
C) Loading cargo on deck
D) Consuming fuel from a full tank
Answer-B
157)A negative metacentric height __________.
A) will always cause a vessel to capsize
B) should always be immediately corrected
C) always results from off-center weights
D) All of the above are correct
Answer-B
158)A negative metacentric height __________.
A) will always cause a vessel to capsize
B) always results from off-center weights
C) should always be immediately corrected
D) All of the above are correct
Answer-C
159)When a vessel is floating upright, the distance from the keel to the metacenter is called the __________.
A) metacentric radius
B) height of the baseline
C) height of the metacenter
Answer-C
160)When a vessel has positive stability, the distance between the line of force through B and the line of force through G is called the __________.
A) metacentric height
B) righting arm
C) righting moment
D) metacentric radius
Answer-B
161)he righting moment can be determined by multiplying the displacement by the __________.
A) vertical center of gravity (KG)
B) longitudinal center of gravity (LCG)
C) righting arm (GZ)
D) center of gravity (CG)
Answer-C
162)n small-angle stability, when external forces exist, the buoyant force is assumed to act vertically upwards through the center of buoyancy and through the __________.
A) center of gravity
B) center of flotation
C) metacenter
D) metacentric height
Answer-C
163)GM cannot be used as an indicator of stability at all angles of inclination because __________.
A) M is not fixed at large angles
B) there is no M at large angles
C) G is not fixed at large angles
D) there is no G at large angles
Answer-A
164)In small angle stability theory, the metacenter is located at the intersection of the inclined vertical centerline and a vertical line through __________.
A) G
B) F
C) B
D) K
Answer-C
165)For a vessel inclined by the wind, multiplying the buoyant force by the horizontal distance between the lines of action of the buoyant and gravity forces gives the __________.
A) righting moment
B) vertical moment
C) longitudinal moment
D) transverse moment
Answer-A
166)The horizontal distance between the vertical lines of action of gravity and the buoyant forces is called the __________.
A) righting arm
B) metacentric height
C) metacentric radius
D) height of the center of buoyancy
Answer-A
167)A vessel behaves as if all of its weight is acting downward through the center of gravity, and all its support is acting upward through the __________.
A) keel
B) center of buoyancy
C) tipping center
D) amidships section
Answer-B
168)he value of the maximum righting arm depends on the position of the center of buoyancy and the __________.
A) longitudinal center of gravity
B) transverse center of gravity
C) downflooding angle
D) vertical location of the center of gravity
Answer-D
169)A floating vessel will behave as if all of its weight is acting downward through the __________.
A) center of gravity
B) center of buoyancy
C) center of flotation
D) metacenter
Answer-A
170)For a given displacement, the righting arm has its maximum value when __________.
A) KG is minimum
B) angle of inclination is a maximum
C) small-angle stability applies
D) KM is a minimum
Answer-A
171)The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which this support is assumed to act is known as the center of __________.
A) effort
B) flotation
C) gravity
D) buoyancy
Answer-D
172)When a wind force causes a vessel to heel to a static angle, the __________.
A) centers of buoyancy and gravity are in the same vertical line
B) righting moment equals the wind-heeling moment
C) center of buoyancy remains the same
D) deck-edge immersion occurs
Answer-B
173)In the absence of external forces, the center of gravity of a floating vessel is located directly above the __________.
A) metacenter
B) amidships
C) center of flotation
D) geometric center of the displaced volume
Answer-D
174)At all angles of inclination, the metacenter is __________.
A) vertically above the center of buoyancy
B) vertically above the center of gravity
C) at the intersection of the upright vertical centerline and the line of action of the buoyant force
D) at the geometric center of the underwater volume
Answer-A
175)A vertical shift of weight to a position above the vessel's center of gravity will __________.
A) increase reserve buoyancy
B) decrease the righting moments
C) decrease KG
D) increase KM
Answer-B
176)When making a turn (course change) on most merchant ships, the vessel will heel outwards if __________.
A) the vessel has very little draft
B) G is above the center of lateral resistance
C) G is below the center of lateral resistance
D) the vessel is deeply laden
Answer-B
177)Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel?
A) She will have a large metacentric height.
B) Her period of roll will be large due to her large metacentric height.
C) She will have an unusually high center of gravity.
D) She will pitch heavily.
Answer-A
178)A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of the cargo is __________.
A) evenly distributed vertically and the double bottoms are full
B) concentrated low and the double bottoms are empty
C) concentrated low and the double bottoms are full
D) concentrated high and the double bottoms are empty
Answer-D
179)A vessel is tender if cargo weight is __________.
A) concentrated high and the double bottoms empty
B) concentrated low and the double bottoms empty
C) evenly distributed vertically with the double bottoms full
D) concentrated and with the double bottoms full
Answer-A
180)In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when carrying a cargo of lumber, you should __________.
A) maximize your deck load
B) distribute lumber so that those stowing most compactly per unit of weight are in the upper holds
C) place the heaviest woods in the lower holds
D) keep the vessel's frame spaces free from lumber
Answer-C
181)Which is TRUE of a "stiff" vessel?
A) It has a small GM.
B) It pitches heavily.
C) It has an unusually high center of gravity.
D) Its period of roll is short.
Answer-D
182)Which technique could be used to give a more comfortable roll to a stiff vessel?
A) Concentrate weights on upper decks
B) Add weight near the centerline of the lower hold
C) Move weights lower in the ship
D) Ballast the peak tanks
Answer-A
183)hich statement is TRUE of a tender vessel?
A) It has a large GM.
B) Its period of roll is long.
C) It has a very low center of gravity.
D) It has a good transverse stability.
Answer-B
184)A vessel with a large GM will __________.
A) have more resistance to listing in case of damage
B) have less tendency to have synchronous rolling
C) be less likely to have cargo shift
D) ride more comfortably
Answer-A
185)A vessel with a small GM will __________.
A) have a large amplitude of roll
B) provide a comfortable ride for the crew and passengers
C) have drier decks in heavy weather
D) be likely to have cargo shift in heavy weather
Answer-B
186) vessel with a large GM will __________.
A) have a small amplitude of roll in heavy weather
B) tend to ship water on deck in heavy weather
C) be subject to severe racking stresses
D) be less likely to have cargo shift
Answer-C
187)A vessel with a small GM will __________.
A) be more subject to synchronous rolling
B) have a short rolling period
C) provide an uncomfortable ride for personnel
D) have a smaller amplitude of roll in heavy weather
Answer-D
188)A quick and rapid motion of a vessel in a seaway is an indication of a(n) __________.
A) large GM
B) high center of gravity
C) excessive free surface
D) small GZ
Answer-A
189)A quick and rapid motion of a vessel in a seaway is an indication of a(n) __________.
A) large GM
B) high center of gravity
C) excessive free surface
D) small GZ
Answer-D
190)Vessels "A" and "B" are identical; however, "A" is more tender than "B". This means that "A" relative to "B" has a __________.
A) lower KG
B) smaller GM
C) smaller roll angle
D) larger GZ
Answer-B
191)A vessel would be referred to as "stiff" when the weight of the cargo is __________.
A) evenly distributed vertically and the double bottoms are full
B) concentrated low and the double bottoms are empty
C) concentrated low and the double bottoms are full
D) concentrated high and the double bottoms are empty
Answer-C
192)Metacentric height is an indication of a vessel's stability __________.
A) for all angles of inclination
B) for large angles of inclination
C) for small angles of inclination
D) in no case
Answer-C
193)Metacentric height is a measure of __________.
A) initial stability only
B) stability through all angles
C) maximum righting arm
D) All of the above
Answer-A
194)Which statement is TRUE about metacentric height?
A)It is a measure of initial stability.
B) It is located above the center of buoyancy.
C) It is measured vertically above the center of buoyancy.
D) It's determination is the objective of the inclining experiment.
Answer-A195)Initial stability refers to stability __________.
A) at small angles of inclination
B) when loaded with minimum deck load
C) when at transit draft
D) when GZ is zero
Answer-A
196)What is used as an indicator of initial stability?
A) GM
B) KG
C) KM
D) GZ
Answer-A
197)Initial stability is indicated by __________.
A) GM
B) KM
C) Deck load
D) Maximum allowed KG
Answer-A
198)What is the stability term for the distance from the center of gravity (G) to the Metacenter (M), when small-angle stability applies
A) metacentric height
B) metacentric radius
C) height of the metacenter
D) righting arm
Answer-A
200)Initial stability of a vessel may be improved by __________
A) removing loose water
B) adding weight low in the vessel
C) closing crossover valves between partly filled double bottom tanks
D) All of the above
Answer-D
201)Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS __________.
A) reduce reserve buoyancy
B) increase righting moments
C) increase GM
D) All of the above
Answer-A
202)Which will be a result of removing on-deck containers?
A) KG will increase
B) Metacentric height will increase
C) KB will increase
D) Reserve buoyancy will decrease
Answer-B
203)Addition of weight above the center of gravity of a vessel will ALWAYS __________.
A) reduce initial stability
B) increase righting moments
C) increase GM
D) All of the above
Answer-A
204)When cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main deck the __________.
A) center of gravity will move upwards
B) GM will increase
C) center of buoyancy will move downward
D) All of the above
Answer-A
205)What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main deck into the lower hold of a vessel?
A) The GM will increase.
B) The metacenter will move upward.
C) The center of buoyancy will move upward.
D) All of the above
Answer-A
206)You must shift a weight from the upper 'tween deck to the lower hold. This shift will __________.
A) make the vessel more tender
B) make the vessel stiffer
C) increase the rolling period
D) decrease the metacentric height
Answer-B
207)Deballasting a double bottom has what affect on KG?
A) KG is increased.
B) KG is decreased.
C) KG is not affected.
D) KG increases at light drafts and decreases at deep drafts.
Answer-A
208)Which action will best increase the transverse stability of a merchant vessel at sea?
A) Ballasting the double bottom tanks
B) Deballasting the deep tanks
C) Positioning a heavy lift cargo on the main deck
D) Raising the cargo booms to the upright position
Answer-A
209)What will NOT decrease the stability of a vessel?
A) Topside icing
B) Running with a following sea
C) Using 35% of the fuel in a full tank
D) Lowering a weight suspended by a boom onto the deck
Answer-D
210)The principal danger from ice collecting on a vessel is the _________.
A) decrease in capabilities of radar
B) decrease in displacement
C) adverse effect on trim
D) loss of stability
Answer-D
211)Topside icing decreases vessel stability because it is usually off-center and __________.
A) increases displacement
B) increases the height of the center of gravity
C) increases draft
D) reduces the pocketing of free surface
Answer-B
213)Topside icing that blocks freeing ports and scuppers __________.
A) is usually below the center of gravity and has little effect on stability
B) will cause water on deck to pocket and increase stability
C) may decrease stability by increasing free surface effect due to water on deck
D) increases the effective freeboard and increases the wind-heel affect
Answer-C
214)Topside icing decreases vessel stability because it increases __________.
A) displacement
B) free surface
C) draft
D) KG
Answer-D
205)What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main deck into the lower hold of a vessel?
A) The GM will increase.
B) The metacenter will move upward.
C) The center of buoyancy will move upward.
D) All of the above
Answer-A
206)You must shift a weight from the upper 'tween deck to the lower hold. This shift will __________.
A) make the vessel more tender
B) make the vessel stiffer
C) increase the rolling period
D) decrease the metacentric height
Answer-B
207)Deballasting a double bottom has what affect on KG?
A) KG is increased.
B) KG is decreased.
C) KG is not affected.
D) KG increases at light drafts and decreases at deep drafts.
Answer-A
208)Which action will best increase the transverse stability of a merchant vessel at sea?
A) Ballasting the double bottom tanks
B) Deballasting the deep tanks
C) Positioning a heavy lift cargo on the main deck
D) Raising the cargo booms to the upright position
Answer-A
209)What will NOT decrease the stability of a vessel?
A) Topside icing
B) Running with a following sea
C) Using 35% of the fuel in a full tank
D) Lowering a weight suspended by a boom onto the deck
Answer-D
210)The principal danger from ice collecting on a vessel is the _________.
A) decrease in capabilities of radar
B) decrease in displacement
C) adverse effect on trim
D) loss of stability
Answer-D
211)Topside icing decreases vessel stability because it is usually off-center and __________.
A) increases displacement
B) increases the height of the center of gravity
C) increases draft
D) reduces the pocketing of free surface
Answer-B
213)Topside icing that blocks freeing ports and scuppers __________.
A) is usually below the center of gravity and has little effect on stability
B) will cause water on deck to pocket and increase stability
C) may decrease stability by increasing free surface effect due to water on deck
D) increases the effective freeboard and increases the wind-heel affect
Answer-C
214)Topside icing decreases vessel stability because it increases __________.
A) displacement
B) free surface
C) draft
D) KG
Answer-D
205)What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main deck into the lower hold of a vessel?
A) The GM will increase.
B) The metacenter will move upward.
C) The center of buoyancy will move upward.
D) All of the above
Answer-A
206)You must shift a weight from the upper 'tween deck to the lower hold. This shift will __________.
A) make the vessel more tender
B) make the vessel stiffer
C) increase the rolling period
D) decrease the metacentric height
Answer-B
207)Deballasting a double bottom has what affect on KG?
A) KG is increased.
B) KG is decreased.
C) KG is not affected.
D) KG increases at light drafts and decreases at deep drafts.
Answer-A
208)Which action will best increase the transverse stability of a merchant vessel at sea?
A) Ballasting the double bottom tanks
B) Deballasting the deep tanks
C) Positioning a heavy lift cargo on the main deck
D) Raising the cargo booms to the upright position
Answer-A
209)What will NOT decrease the stability of a vessel?
A) Topside icing
B) Running with a following sea
C) Using 35% of the fuel in a full tank
D) Lowering a weight suspended by a boom onto the deck
Answer-D
210)The principal danger from ice collecting on a vessel is the _________.
A) decrease in capabilities of radar
B) decrease in displacement
C) adverse effect on trim
D) loss of stability
Answer-D
211)Topside icing decreases vessel stability because it is usually off-center and __________.
A) increases displacement
B) increases the height of the center of gravity
C) increases draft
D) reduces the pocketing of free surface
Answer-B
213)Topside icing that blocks freeing ports and scuppers __________.
A) is usually below the center of gravity and has little effect on stability
B) will cause water on deck to pocket and increase stability
C) may decrease stability by increasing free surface effect due to water on deck
D) increases the effective freeboard and increases the wind-heel affect
Answer-C
214)Topside icing decreases vessel stability because it increases __________.
A) displacement
B) free surface
C) draft
D) KG
Answer-D
215)The upward pressure of displaced water is called __________.
A) buoyancy
B) deadweight
C) draft
D) freeboard
Answer-A
216)Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the vertical moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.
A) height of the center of gravity
B) vertical moments
C) righting moments
D) inclining moments
Answer-A
217)On a vessel, multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity above the baseline results in a(n) __________.
A) transverse moment
B) vertical moment
C) righting moment
D) inclining moment
Answer-B
218)hich formula can be used to calculate metacentric height?
A) KM + GM
B) KM - GM
C) KM - KG
D) KB + BM
Answer-C
219)The difference between the height of the metacenter and the metacentric height is known as __________.
A) righting arm
B) metacentric radius
C) height of the center of buoyancy
D) height of the center of gravity
Answer-D
220)In small angle stability, the metacentric height __________.
A) is found in the hydrostatic tables for a level vessel
B) multiplied by the displacement yields the righting moment
C) is always positive
D) is calculated by subtracting KG from KM
Answer-D
221)Subtracting GM from KM yields __________.
A) BL
B) GM
C) FS
D) KG
Answer-D
222)Subtracting KG from KM yields __________.
A) BL
B) GM
C) FS
D) KG
Answer-B
223)Subtracting KG from KM yields __________.
A) BM
B) GM
C) GZ
D) KG
Answer-B
224)The moment of a force is a measure of the __________.
A) turning effect of the force about a point
B) instantaneous value of the force
C) stability characteristics of the vessel
D) center of gravity location
Answer-A
WELDING AND WELDING DEFECTS
Q- Which weld fault can only be detected by a method that examines the internal structure of a weld?
A) Undercut
B) Lack of reinforcement
C) Overlap
D) Lack of penetration
Q- Which type of weld testing can be used to detect internal flaws?
A) Magnetic particle
B) Dye penetrant
C) Ultrasonic
D) Chemical reaction
Answer-C
Q- The welds used to attach stiffeners to a plate are known as __________.
A) butt welds
B) seam welds
C) fillet welds
D) plate welds
Answer-C
Q- The type of welding employed in shipyards is primarily __________.
A) brazing
B) electric arc
C) pressure welding
D) thermite welding
Answer-B
Q- Sometimes it is desirable to connect a member both by riveting and welding. Which statement is TRUE concerning this procedure?
A) Tearing through the member is more likely in this type connection
B) The weld may be broken by the stresses caused by riveting.
C) The weld increases the tensile stress on the rivet heads.
D) The welding must be completed before the riveting commences.
Answer-D
Q- The joint formed when two steel plates are placed end-to-end is called a __________.
A) bevel
B) seam
C) butt
D) bond
Answer-C
Q- The smallest size of flaw that can be detected on a radiograph examination of a weld will be indicated by the __________.
A) film speed
B) penetrometer
C) exposure reading
D) time of exposure
Answer-B
Q- What welding pattern is NOT used to permanently attach a stiffener to a plate?
A) Chain intermittent
B) Tack
C) Continuous
D) Staggered intermittent
Answer-B
Q- Weldability steel depends on carbon equivalent
a.CE = 0.35
b.CE between O.36 AND 0.4
c.CE between o.41 and o.45
d.CE between o.46 and o.5
Answer-A
Q- The coating on an electrode used for electric arc welding
A. creates a gas shield to prevent oxidation of the weld material
B. helps the weld formation by shaping the metal transfer
C. provides an electrical insulation for the user
D. All of the above
Answer-A
Q- To prevent electric shock during electric arc welding
A. Wear dry clothes
B. Wear insulated shoes
C. Keep first aid equipment ready
D. None of the above
Answer-A
MARINE REFRIGERATION
Q- A refrigerant compressor will run continuously
a) whem there is a too heavily cooling load on system
b) air in the system
c) insufficient refrigerant in the system
d any of the above.
Answer-B
Q- excessive lubrication in compressors lead to
a) sticking of valves
b) carryover and deposit of oil particles in pipelines and reservoirs
c) decomposition
d) detonation
Answer-B
Q- heat removed from the refrigerant in the condenser of a refrigeration plant is the
a) latent heat of expansion
b) sensible heat of condensation
c) heat of compression
d) all of the above
Answer-C
Q- The purpose of the low pressure cutout switch is to
A maintain liquid refrigerant at the suction of the compressor
B maintain a preset suction pressure to the compressor
C start and stop the compressor at preset operating pressures
D operate at minimum efficiency
Answer-C
Q- When you adjust thermostatic expansion valve
A refrigerant must be bled off the sensing line before adjustments are made
B all refrigerant must be pumped into the receiver before adjustments are made
C time must be allowed for conditions to stabilize in the evaporator before further adjustments are made
D all refrigerant must be routed through the dehydrator while changing the superheat setting
Answer-B
Q- Refrigeration system compressor crankcase sweating is an indication of
A insufficient lube oil circulating throgh the system
B excessive circulation of lube oil through the system
C insufficient refrigerant in the system
D an overworked compressor
Answer-B
Q- Refer compressor oil should have the following properties
a) Chemically inert with respect to refrigerant
b) Should be able to perform at lower temp (viscosity and cloud point)
c) Should have a certain emulsification properties with water
d) Should absorb water but still perform the lubrication
Answer-B
Q- With reference to a Data Logger for a refrigeration system, which of the following parameters should be monitored?
A. Room temperature.
B. Liquid Line temperature.
C. Recharge temperature.
D. Solenoid valve operation.
Answer- Not Sure may Be A
Q- Back pressure valve in a refrigeration system with multiple chambers is fitted_____________
a) At the refrigerant exit end of evaporator of each chamber
b) At the refrigerant exit end of evaporators of chambers with higher temperature settings
c) At the refrigerant exit end of evaporators of chambers with lower temperature settings
d) None of the above
Answer-B
Q- Which of the refrigerants listed is considered safe and ideal for most marine applications?
A)R-21
B)ammonia
C)R-22
D)sulfur dioxyde
Answer-C
Q- In reference to air conditioning, when air attains the maximum amount of moisture it can hold at a specific temperature, it is said to be _____________.
1. superheated
2. saturated
3. condensed
4. convected
Answer-2
Q- If the superheat value of a thermostatic expansion valve is set too low________
A. The suction line of the compressor will be too hot
B. The suction line of the compressor will be too cold
C. The discharge line of the compressor will be too hot
D. The discharge line of the compressor will be too cold
Answer-B
Q- High pressure cut out of a refrigerant system can activate due to which of the following faults?
A. Improper cooling due to a dirty condenser
B. Overcharge
C. Air in the system
D. All of the above
Answer-D
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